Despite the authenticity controversy concerning verses 1-11, I would like to examine it in detail to grasp a better understanding of how to refute many who attempt to use this as proof a "change has occurred".
1) We know the woman accused of adultery had "sinned".
2) We also know her accusers brought her to Yeshua to "tempt" (KJV), "trying" (ISR), "testing" (HRV) Him
3) He accused all those gathered of having sinned in the past.
In what manner were they "trying" Him? I think it was in His knowledge of what He had previously written and what He again wrote on the ground in their presence which is found here:
Deu 19:15 “One witness does not rise up against a man concerning any crookedness or any sin that he commits. At the mouth of two witnesses or at the mouth of three witnesses a matter is established.
Why would Yeshua have used their past sins as a tool to convict them of their error and not Deu 19:15? Is this proof of John 8:1-11 not being inspired?
A close friend of mine attempted to use this situation as "proof" a "change has occurred".
See my new blog on this:
Why would Yeshua have used their past sins as a tool to convict them of their error
--because Yeshua was not interested to deliver judgment to the sinner. aware that He came to save the sinner not to judge, though promised to return to judge every one
--because Yeshua knows that capital punishment CANNOT BE meted out from decision of a single judge, save from appeal to the sanhedrin
--because Yeshua knows the exacting procedures observed under the law for admitting parole evidence in a capital case, which, in the given narration can only put him to embarrassment had he done otherwise