Despite the authenticity controversy concerning verses 1-11, I would like to examine it in detail to grasp a better understanding of how to refute many who attempt to use this as proof a "change has occurred".
1) We know the woman accused of adultery had "sinned".
2) We also know her accusers brought her to Yeshua to "tempt" (KJV), "trying" (ISR), "testing" (HRV) Him
3) He accused all those gathered of having sinned in the past.
In what manner were they "trying" Him? I think it was in His knowledge of what He had previously written and what He again wrote on the ground in their presence which is found here:
Deu 19:15 “One witness does not rise up against a man concerning any crookedness or any sin that he commits. At the mouth of two witnesses or at the mouth of three witnesses a matter is established.
Why would Yeshua have used their past sins as a tool to convict them of their error and not Deu 19:15? Is this proof of John 8:1-11 not being inspired?
A close friend of mine attempted to use this situation as "proof" a "change has occurred".