Greetings, I have a few questions...
1) Why did Yeshua not clear the land of the Canaanites? (quote?)
2) We know, according to Torah, that blood is necessary for the atonement of the soul. Why was it that in Ezek. 18, when Ezekiel was prophesying during the 70 year Babylonian exile, that in this passage, during an age where there was no blood sacrifice to provide atonement because there was no standing Temple, that Elohim speaks of those individuals who do what is "lawful and right", that they can "save their soul alive."
Again, when the wicked man turneth away from his wickedness that he hath committed, and doeth that which is lawful and right, he shall save his soul alive.
Because he considereth, and turneth away from all his transgressions that he hath committed, he shall surely live, he shall not die.
The concept then is the penitent soul won't go to Hell if he were to die even if he had no blood atonement covering his soul..? The Shekinah wasn't in Israel's midst because there was an entire generation that did not have any sacrifices being made, so how then would their souls have been atoned for? If it was less than 70 years (for example 40), then I could see how it could have worked, because there would still be people of the previous generation who had blood atonement, and by the time they died, the next generation would live during the Temple's reconstruction, and they could have had blood atonement later in their life; but 70 years...that is over a generation... so??? When Ezekiel says that they "save their soul alive," is that equivalent to "blood atonement" and "forgiveness?" Yet how can they be forgiven if there was no blood atonement over their souls? There are multiple questions being asked here. What do you make of this?
3) Is there any record of any Essenes in the Talmud? Where?
4) The Jews say that the Torah was given to Am Yisrael; transmitted from Heaven to Earth; on Shavuot. First of all, Torah is not clear that it was "the Torah" that was given on Shavuot, but it says, "the ten commandments" and "all the words of this covenant" which "all the words of this covenant" could be interpreted as being the words from Ex 20:2 - 23:33 or else it is when "Moses wrote all the words of YHWH..." (Ex. 24:4) if that is the same day? Secondly, if the Torah was given from Sinai on Shavuot then one would have to finagle several things mathematically in order to make the day of its transmission line up with Shavuot. For example, according to the calculations I have seen in working backwards or forwards from Ex 19:1-2, the only way to make it work is to either have the firstborn Israelites wave the wave sheaf extra early in Egypt, which is not probable, or else have around 18 day months during the same year as the Exodus from Aviv (Nisan) to the third month (Sivan), which is highly unlikely (maybe probable according to Immanuel Velikovsky). So could someone please try and prove to me that the Torah was given to Am Yisrael on Shavuot?
Thank you for your time.