My question is how you define "Jewish" (leaving aside distinctions such as Ashkenazic, Sephardic, Karaite, or secular Jews, etc.). I personally would simply distinguish between ethnical Jews and/or spiritual Jews - as for me, I belong to the latter group (Romans 2:29).
As per Yochanan 3:5 and Acts 2:38, conversion entails being born again of water & spirit (immersed in both), which leads us back to the gift of the Ruach HaKodesh manifested in tongues whenever [ethnical] Jews or Gentiles were converted (Acts 2:4; Acts 10:45-46).
That's the main criteria as per Ketuvim Netzarim - or am I missing anything here?
The "50 million" people you have mentioned might have been called most anything by their murderers no doubt. "Heretic, Backsliding X-tian" etc, etc. Can anyone now living say with all certainty what each one murdered were called? I agree Rome's religions have nothing do to with Nazarene Judaism.
Again I have no idea what the people murdered by Nero were called by their murderers. I cannot say it is "fact" that Constantine only persecuted "jews" be they believing or not. To many rabbit trails here to examine in depth.
I don't recall saying that "today's so-called X-tians" and protestants have absolutely "nothing" to do with what the Eternal ONE as admonished anyone that SAYS they believe Him should be doing. They have a head knowledge it seems, it's their hearts that seem skewed. Many corrupted by "torah and truth" has not been observed in my endeavors. I only use the term when it's appropriate and to bring to light the fact a hidden falsehood exists with anyone that chooses to associate themselves with that man made "faith".
The answer to your question to me is, Yes, ...and many times afterward. .
Again a few misunderstandings it seems:
# I meant that the persecution of the Jews started with Constantine, i.e., and of course of anyone else who didn't submit (judaiziers, etc.).
# I meant corrupted by Rome, which hates Torah & truth.
Your answer to my question doesn't make sense. One is only born once of water and spirit = baptized once into Yeshua's death, and only raised once from that death by the power of the Holy Spirit, i.e., one receives the Holy Spirit (evidenced by speaking in tongues).
If you don't speak audibly in tongues like all those Nazarenes described in Acts, Gentiles & Jews, like Shaul, et al. - then you should ask yourself whether you were baptized with fire (not literal fire), and whether you were circumcised in heart by that fire/Spirit, and thus whether you have the Spirit of Messiah within you.
I find, at the beginning of our debate you were very critical with regards to tongues, as if that's something bad, or something unimportant.
Please remember that unless you are born of water & spirit you won't be able to enter the Kingdom of Eloah (John 3:5), despite any Torah obedience.
My answer "doesn't make any sense" to you perhaps because you are uncertain of the need to be immersed (...of course for initial believer) more than once?
Why again are you adamant that "audibly" speaking/praying in tongues is an absolute requirement as evidence someone has been "baptized with not literal fire" and "circumcised in heart" and "has the Spirit of Messiah"? Could you back that up with scripture to prove your assertion please? (The alleged necessity of always an "audible" word(s)/prayer) Your starting to sound like a "clanging cymbal" to me.
No one has been "critical" here. Except of this one fact I wish to present. In your "witnessing" might I suggest a few less assertions? Please remember that as yes, I am well aware of John 3:5, thank you.
Excuse the lateness; attached is a reply which got a bit longer.
This is my last contribution to this discussion. Not because of different views, but simply because I want to spend more time doing that what I've been writing about: praying in the Spirit.